From
Frank's fingerprints are all over the financial fiasco - The Boston Globe:
"The roots of this crisis go back to the Carter administration. That was when government officials, egged on by left-wing activists, began
accusing mortgage lenders of racism and "redlining" because urban blacks were being denied mortgages at a higher rate than suburban whites.
The pressure to make more loans to minorities (read: to borrowers with weak credit histories) became relentless. Congress passed the
Community Reinvestment Act, empowering regulators to punish banks that failed to "meet the credit needs" of "low-income, minority, and distressed neighborhoods." Lenders responded by loosening their underwriting standards and making increasingly shoddy loans. The two government-chartered mortgage finance firms, Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac, encouraged this "subprime" lending by authorizing ever more "flexible" criteria by which high-risk borrowers could be qualified for home loans, and then buying up the questionable mortgages that ensued."
The government created the playground that the banks played in.
Redlining for minorities did not cause the problems we're experiencing now. Extending loans to people who should not have gotten them was the problem. Redlining actually was meant to highlight situations when a minority was not able to get a mortgage while a similarly-qualified non-minority did get approved. In fact the term redlining comes from the 1960's when a sociologist showed by drawing on a map in red outline where banks, insurance companies, and other financial institutions were making life MORE difficult for minorities, particularly in metropolitan areas. In the '60s, it was very common to deny insurance coverage, mortgage approvals, funding, or charge exhorbitantly high charges to areas that were considered too heavily populated by minorities. And minorities DID have a higher unemployment and credit history at that time because institutional racism was still very common.
It's not possible to discuss redlining today without knowing how it actually began. In the '70s, Congress tried to break through the redlines by forcing companies to hold the same standards across all geographies without regard to company-created redline territories.
To be clear, loans to unqualified have been the problem. Not loans to minorities. All loans have some risks, and the risks to minorities has long been tied to not having the same financial history as non-minorities. That does not make minorities less qualified, especially considering minorities do not represent a significant % of overstretched loans on overvalued properties.
As of 2008, all minorities combined represented a total of 34% of the US population of 304,000,000. Given normal age distribution trend of 80% being working age or older and mortgage possible, loans to minorities alone could not possibly have accounted for the size of problems in the mortgage business. So don't characterize it as minority-driven.
The blame is squarely on loans approved to people who had no chance at paying them off. How many people were talked into interest-only loans that have now been defaulted after the interest-only period has expired? How many loans were given to people who traded up in housing time and time again, but are now caught short by falling home values and/or job loss?
Redlining, even if done for all minorities, could not have cause problems at this scale. The same people who "felt the pressure to redline" didn't feel the pressure to loan to similarly situated non-minorities?
And to be clear, much of the reasoning for government involvement was due to minorities being denied when non-minorities weren't. The simple answer would have been to be more strict and simply not let any unqualified loans to go through. Ahh, but that would mean it would be difficult to take risk. And it's always been a safe bet for banks and mortgage backers when the value of homes was rising and inventory could not keep up with demand.
Redlining exists in other places but nothing's done about it. It's proven that people in large cities pay more for medications at drugstores than those in suburbs. Are they charged more because they're a risk to not paying? No, they're charged more because the drugstores are often more commonly independents who cannot get the same wholesale prices that megachains do. And even worse, megachains simply charge whatever they think is the highest competitive rate that they can. So a megachain drugstore will charge more for prescriptions in urban (which tend to have more minorities) locations than they do in the suburbs. Yet we don't have Congress to blame for that because it's done at a much smaller cost scale than home purchases.