Tom Ace
Well-Known Member
I said theft was an incorrect word BECAUSE it doesn't fit the legal definition. Byteware then try to reason it DID fit the legal definition because the judge made them repay the money...
ME:
"You do nothing for your case," BECAUSE, this situation doesn't fit the legal definition of theft.
Yeah, and nowhere in that post you quoted does it say "because it doesn't fit the legal definition", nor is it implied. And even if that was your contention, it was an irrelevant point, since no one ever said it fit the legal definition of "theft". That's my whole point. We're not concerned with whether it fits the legal definition.
Can we end this now?
Only if you're ready to admit that the original use of "theft" wasn't incorrect, because it wasn't meant to fit the legal definition.
Yes, there is a reason it can't apply, a reason you even acknowledged a few posts back.
And yet there was no reason for your original comment saying "theft" shouldn't be used in this case. You keep going back to your discussion with Byteware. That's irrelevant. Your original comment was not in response to him. If you can admit your original comment not in response to anyone asserting that this was theft according to the legal definition was in error, we can be done with this.
Yes, it was "illegal," I admit that... no it was not theft according to the law.
Thank you. Now, I'm not debating whether or not it's theft according to the law. I'm saying that's not what your original comment said. Your original comment was in response to someone who was not claiming it was theft according to the legal definition.
Wrong again, it was communicated to the customer, but according to the judge, not in an adequate way.
Do you always go around looking for arguments like this? Not communicating it and not communicating it properly are the same thing here. The point is that many customers didn't know about the policy, meaning it was not communicated to them.